Hi everyone. Thank you for letting me join. I recently had an MRI and have been referred to a neurologist. I have been diagnosed with Fibromyalgia for several years but have always felt that was an inaccurate diagnosis. My symptoms are dizziness, light headedness/off balance, lack of coordination (I walk into door frames, stub my toes, etc., a lot), decreased fine motor skills, neck pain, sleep apnea (untreated, cannot tolerate CPAP), occasionally choking on liquids (3-4 times per week), pretty significant memory issues, weird stabbing pains in my feet occasionally, numerous eye floaters and blurred vision, although vision testing and my vision is 20/20 (it varies throughout the day and from day to day and I was having a good day at the eye dr.) So, as a result of all this, and not finding any other cause, my PCP finally ordered an MRI of the head. PCP’s office called and said “no acute findings on the MRI but if you are still dizzy, you should see a neurologist”. But the radiology report from the MRI says: “Findings” Low lying cerebellar tonsils of approximately 5 mm with minimal associated crowding at the level of the foramen magnum." Everything else was “normal”. Does “low lying cerebellar tonsils of approximately 5 mm” mean Chiarai type I? Elsewhere in the report it says: Low-lying cerebellar tonsils with minimal crowding at the level of the foramen magnum. “This is nonspecific and can be seen in the setting of normal variation, Chiari I malformation, and intracranial hypotension/hypertension.” But this does not seem to be consistent with the information I am finding online/ Any insight would be appreciated. Thank you.